On Mon, Aug 05, 2002 at 02:14:33PM +0100,
Philip Hazel <ph10@???> is thought to have said:
> On 5 Aug 2002 michael@??? wrote:
>
> > if multiple independent mails are transmitted over one connection,
> > must RSET be used after finishing a transaction with a successful
> > DATA command?
>
> No.
>
> > Exim appearantly uses RSET, and there is probably a reason why it
> > does so, but I did not find the reason in RFC2821.
>
> Exim shouldn't send RSET if the message was successfully delivered. Of
> course, there is always the chance of a bug...
Doesn't it do this in the case of messages being transfered via STARTTLS to
the same host? ISTR seeing this issue be discussed earlier this year on the
list. Not sure if that's what's happening in Michael's case but it could be
an explanation.
Ah here it is:
http://www.exim.org/mailman/htdig/exim-users/Week-of-Mon-20020422/038095.html
Tabor
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Tabor J. Wells twells@???
Fsck It! Just another victim of the ambient morality
